bdjohn2150 bdjohn2150
  • 06-03-2024
  • Mathematics
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Let X1,X2,... be independent Bernoulli random variables Xi∼BIN(1,pi), and let Yn=∑ (Xi−pi)/n

Show that the sequence Y1,Y2,... converges stochastically to c=0 as, n→[infinity]

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