xvirgicex xvirgicex
  • 07-02-2019
  • English
contestada

What does the author mean when he writes: "I… trouble deaf heaven with my bootless cries"?

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yupyeahgodz
yupyeahgodz yupyeahgodz
  • 07-02-2019
Give me a book, picture, or a link. Nobody can help you if they do not know what the question is from. But I can take a guess. The sorrow quoted here might be more rhetorical than real, being part of the sonnet tradition, in which many misfortunes contrive to make the lover unhappy. It also serves to highlight the great joy which ends the poem, when he thinks once more on his beloved, as in the psalms, and rises above the clouds.
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alyrobinson18pdou16
alyrobinson18pdou16 alyrobinson18pdou16
  • 13-12-2020

Answer: The answer is "The speaker's prayers will not be heard"

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